Robioto Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Just a quick question. I'm about to sell a player for £0 with a clause that I get £20m after 1 International Appearance. It's a bit of a risk as he may not be good enough to ever play for his nation. That aside, if he is sold to another club before the clause is activated will I still receive my £20m when he makes his first cap? Thanks. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
SCIAG Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 I can't remember. Half of me says "yes", half says "no". Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robioto Posted July 28, 2009 Author Share Posted July 28, 2009 I can't remember. Half of me says "yes", half says "no". Not your best post. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
BenArsenal Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Just a quick question. I'm about to sell a player for £0 with a clause that I get £20m after 1 International Appearance. It's a bit of a risk as he may not be good enough to ever play for his nation. That aside, if he is sold to another club before the clause is activated will I still receive my £20m when he makes his first cap? Thanks. I don't think so. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robioto Posted July 28, 2009 Author Share Posted July 28, 2009 I've decided to go for it. Hopefully at Shaktar he will get his rep up to get in the Dutch squad. He's got the potential to be a 'Leading Premiership Star' but he is the worst of about 5 CBs I have with that label. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
RvN#17 Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 How old is he, i mean player you sold ? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robioto Posted July 28, 2009 Author Share Posted July 28, 2009 20, here he is, I got him on free a season ago so I'm not gonig to lose alot it it doesn't come off: http://img193.imageshack.us/i/larsdeman.png/ Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
peter-evo Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Aren't all clauses payed off when the player is sold? To prevent an instance where a team could say '£30,000,000 after 40 goals' and then the other team selling him on 39 goals. Or is it just a loophole? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
SCIAG Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 No, Peter, they're not. International stuff might be an exception though. In 2016, it should be easy for him to get the call up, because Holland can't use the default players. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robioto Posted July 28, 2009 Author Share Posted July 28, 2009 No, Peter, they're not. International stuff might be an exception though.In 2016, it should be easy for him to get the call up, because Holland can't use the default players. Didn't think of that. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
arsenal_2111 Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Holland do use real players on 09 though, it's on 08 they don't isn't it? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Teezy. Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Jammy is correct. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sir_Liam Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 On an earlier FM I did one of these deals. I sold this young English winger I had for £0 + £10,000,000 after 1 international cap. I was England manager at the time. It's fair to say the clause was paid early. I've never done it since though as it feels like cheating as the AI can't recognise they're being conned basically. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
arsenal_2111 Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Jammy is correct. Always am tbh Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robioto Posted July 28, 2009 Author Share Posted July 28, 2009 On an earlier FM I did one of these deals. I sold this young English winger I had for £0 + £10,000,000 after 1 international cap. I was England manager at the time.It's fair to say the clause was paid early. I've never done it since though as it feels like cheating as the AI can't recognise they're being conned basically. Yeah, I do feel a bit dirty for doing it! Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
LFC87 Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 I got a question about this too... If a player's previous team receives for example 50% of the next transfer fee, will they receive 50% of this fee too? And what about the fee you get after for example 40 games? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
dankrzyz Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Aren't all clauses payed off when the player is sold? To prevent an instance where a team could say '£30,000,000 after 40 goals' and then the other team selling him on 39 goals. Or is it just a loophole? No, Peter, they're not. International stuff might be an exception though. Interesting question... could someone confirm this? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
DivineOne Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Yep, definitely. Recently received some money myself like that. I believe it was a "after x appearances", I got my cut from it . Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
DB1 Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 I can't remember. Half of me says "yes", half says "no". That is the best answer I've ever seen on these forums. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
DivineOne Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 I can't remember. Half of me says "yes", half says "no". Offcourse what would happen if you sell him at 20 and he gets his first cap at 30. Let's say he changed clubs 4 times in the mean time. I honestly doubt the club you sold hem too should then have to pay for a player they haven't had for several years. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
weeeman27bob Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Should of kept him. Because...... He's De Man! Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
SnakeXe Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 Should of kept him. Because...... He's De Man! I would have kept him for that reason, and that reason alone Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Robioto Posted July 28, 2009 Author Share Posted July 28, 2009 On an earlier FM I did one of these deals. I sold this young English winger I had for £0 + £10,000,000 after 1 international cap. I was England manager at the time.It's fair to say the clause was paid early. I've never done it since though as it feels like cheating as the AI can't recognise they're being conned basically. I would have kept him for that reason, and that reason alone It did cross my mind TBH. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
sydfc4ever Posted July 28, 2009 Share Posted July 28, 2009 i do this regularly with my players, when i was in charge of Italy i sold about 5 of my Italians for $0 up front and from $5 - 25M on 1st cap. It was amazing how many players only ever played once for Italy, and even then only for 3 minutes! I'm starting to do it with Spain now that I have moved on. It's a great money spinner! I don't think Italy will ever give me the job again (even though I won everything with them, hence why I left) due to me joining Spain who were our opponent in every single final (WC, Euro, Confed)! I just felt so sorry for them, getting to the final each time and loosing! Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jefferzboy Posted July 29, 2009 Share Posted July 29, 2009 Aren't all clauses payed off when the player is sold? To prevent an instance where a team could say '£30,000,000 after 40 goals' and then the other team selling him on 39 goals. Or is it just a loophole? As far as im aware you don't have to pay out the money unless he reaches his target. I seem to remember a player IRL playing in about 37 matches, but not being played for the full 40 because the club would have owed money to the previous club. He was subsequently sold or released and i dont think the previous club got any money for him. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
BenArsenal Posted July 29, 2009 Share Posted July 29, 2009 As far as im aware you don't have to pay out the money unless he reaches his target. I seem to remember a player IRL playing in about 37 matches, but not being played for the full 40 because the club would have owed money to the previous club. He was subsequently sold or released and i dont think the previous club got any money for him. There are several cases. Michael Ball at Rangers, one game short of paying out to Everton. Man City are also looking to shift Benjani, as they are a few games away from paying Pompey. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
jams1234 Posted July 29, 2009 Share Posted July 29, 2009 Because City are finding money hard to find atm, or maybe they're looking to shift him because he will play zilch games next season. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Elrithral Posted July 29, 2009 Share Posted July 29, 2009 Because City are finding money hard to find atm, or maybe they're looking to shift him because he will play zilch games next season. Whether they are finding money hard to come by or rolling in it, no team would want to waste money on a crap striker. So it's fair to say that they want rid, not only because he's crap, but to avoid paying more than necessary for a poor player. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
BenArsenal Posted July 29, 2009 Share Posted July 29, 2009 Some people (and clubs) are skint. Elrithral is right. They wouldn't want to pay extra money for a player they don't want. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
SucksAtFM Posted July 29, 2009 Share Posted July 29, 2009 Should of kept him. Because...... He's De Man! Damn you! you beat me to it! Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
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