jimlad Posted June 26, 2009 Share Posted June 26, 2009 Hi, Not sure if this is a bug or that I just don't understand the coefficient system. I did the quadruple with Liverpool which included winning the Champions League and this was the final coefficient table for that year: 1st - Chelsea - 41.657 2nd Liverpool (Me!) - 34.657 3rd - Man United - 32.657 4th - Barcelona - 24.771 5th - Arsenal - 34.657 Neither Chelsea nor Arsenal played in the Champions League. Chelsea won the Uefa Cup (Or whatever it's called) and Arsenal Lost in the semis of the same competition. How can Chelsea have more points and Arsenal the same points as me when I thought the Champions League had a greater weighting and I won the bloody thing!!?? Our respective records in the competitions: Liverpool W9 D3 L1 Chelsea W12 D1 L2 Arsenal W10 D2 L2 Can anyone shed any light? Cheers Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
jmknpk Posted June 26, 2009 Share Posted June 26, 2009 Sorry I can't help you, but I'm curious where can you see the club coefficients? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
isuckatfm Posted June 26, 2009 Share Posted June 26, 2009 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/UEFA_coefficients Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lower Leagues Rule Posted June 27, 2009 Share Posted June 27, 2009 I have noticed this in my long term game as well, the UEFA Cup winners seem to get much higher coefficients, I have played to the Quarterfinals of the UEFA Cup four times running and always been in the top 10 of the Coefficients because of these results, not sure why the UEFA Cup gets higher though. may be a bug. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
BenArsenal Posted June 27, 2009 Share Posted June 27, 2009 I'm guessing it's because the UEFA Cup has more matches than the Champions League(?), and so more points can be gotten from there. Since points are given for reaching every round of the competition, so more rounds = more points. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
The_Kreman Posted June 27, 2009 Share Posted June 27, 2009 Could it not be because it is an average from the points accumulated over a certain number of seasons? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
gcormack Posted June 27, 2009 Share Posted June 27, 2009 i think its worked out by how many wins you get in europe so thats why chelsea have the most cause the uefa cup has more games. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
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