jxd Posted February 21, 2011 Share Posted February 21, 2011 I'm in the German league, Schalke finished 4th, but according to their information they are in the Champions League. Yet when I look at world->nations->Europe->qualification places, Germany only gets 2+1. I won both the Bundesliga and the champions league last year, is that the reason? Also, is the coefficient only based on win/loss, or how far the teams progress? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
StevoRobbo Posted February 21, 2011 Share Posted February 21, 2011 I assume because you are the defending champion, you enter anyway. So Second and Third get the two automatic spots and Fourth gets the qualifyer. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
milnerpoint Posted February 21, 2011 Share Posted February 21, 2011 yup you won it so you dont count towards next years allocation. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
r0x0r Posted February 21, 2011 Share Posted February 21, 2011 Nope, or England/Spain/Italy would generally have five teams at a time. Sounds like you had 4 slots but have lost it. So next season the 4th placed team won't get it. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jops14 Posted February 21, 2011 Share Posted February 21, 2011 ^ that did happen when everton came 4th and liverpool came 5th and won it... Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winston Ellis Posted February 21, 2011 Share Posted February 21, 2011 Previous winner doesn't automatically get in, blatter did away with that in 2007. It's because you get 3 automatic group stage places but one qualifier. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
jxd Posted February 21, 2011 Author Share Posted February 21, 2011 Did some digging on UEFA's website and found the relevant regulation, http://www.uefa.com/MultimediaFiles/Download/Regulations/competitions/Regulations/01/48/42/49/1484249_DOWNLOAD.pdf a) If the titleholder comes from an association entitled to four places in the UEFA Champions League and qualifies for the UEFA Europa League through its domestic competitions, the lowest-ranked club of the association’s UEFA Champions League representatives is automatically transferred to the UEFA Europa League (into the latest possible round where there is a vacancy). In this case, the number of places to which the titleholder's national association is entitled in the UEFA Champions League and the UEFA Europa League does not change. d) If the titleholder comes from an association entitled to fewer than four places in the UEFA Champions League and does not qualify for the UEFA Champions League or UEFA Europa League through its domestic competitions, it is entitled to play in the UEFA Champions League in addition to the association’s other UEFA Champions League representative(s). In this case, the national association of the titleholder is entitled to one additional place in the UEFA Champions League. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Nobby_McDonald Posted February 21, 2011 Share Posted February 21, 2011 Previous winner doesn't automatically get in, blatter did away with that in 2007. It's because you get 3 automatic group stage places but one qualifier. Firstly, Blatter is President of FIFA not UEFA, so he had nothing to do with it. Secondly, it was never 'done away with' anyway, as jxd points out. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
DDRickyDD@hotmail.com Posted February 22, 2011 Share Posted February 22, 2011 So if Bayern Munich had won the Champions League last season Bayer Leverkusen (4th placed team in the Bundesliga) would have been in the Champions League this season? Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
La Furia Roja Posted February 22, 2011 Share Posted February 22, 2011 Firstly, Blatter is President of FIFA not UEFA, so he had nothing to do with it.Secondly, it was never 'done away with' anyway, as jxd points out. dont you just love it when people make stuff up Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
DaveB` Posted February 22, 2011 Share Posted February 22, 2011 My understanding The national association of the titleholder is entitled to one additional place in the UEFA Champions League. if you have fewer than 4 teams automatically representing your nation. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kain Posted February 22, 2011 Share Posted February 22, 2011 So if Bayern Munich had won the Champions League last season Bayer Leverkusen (4th placed team in the Bundesliga) would have been in the Champions League this season? No. Had Bayern won the Champions League and finished 4th, then 4 German teams would be playing. However, if the winner of the Champions League won their own domestic league as well, that country doesn't get an additional place, so Leverkusen would still be in the Europa. Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
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